Comments on Mary.

Mary:

1). John 2:4,19:26,Luke 11:27-28 Christ either called Mary woman or nothing at all instead of Mother of God. If Mary wasn’t called Mother of God in the Bible or the Early Church for more than 300 years, why is it necessary for Christian to call Mary by that name? You shouldn’t and I follow Christ’s example.

Matthew 13:55-56 /Mark 6:3 Mary’s children are shown (Sisters are mentioned in those verses. Sister in Greek coordance of the NT means blood relative sisters not cousins.)

2). Ps. 53:3 All humans including Mary are sinners except Christ who never experienced original sin by being divine.

3). Isaiah 43:10 No one pre-existed God and there is no mother of God. Also see Micah 5:2 showing the Messiah is from everlasting without a Mother since the Messiah is God. Almighty God doesn’t have a Mother. Before Mary, God the Father and God the Son already existed. Mary is just the mother of the earthly Jesus.

4). Luke 2:21-23 Mary received purification according to the Torah. If Mary is sinless from birth, why does she need purification for after childbirth? Mary is obviously a sinner.

5). Romans 8:34 Intercession is solely by Christ. Also see John 14:6 and 2 Timothy 2:4-6. There is no verse in the OT or NT for intercession by any other being but God not saints, Mary, etc.

6). 1 John 1:8-10 If you say a human (i.e. Mary) is without sin, you deceive yourself and are liars. Special devotion to Mary is therefore unnecessary because Mary is important, but she didn’t die on the cross for salvation, she didn’t save all human’s sins, she didn’t defeat Satan, didn’t organize the Church. Christ accomplished these things alone without you, the apostles, anybody, or me. No man is sinless so logically to exalt a human being like that is unbiblical.

7). Romans 3:23/ Romans 5:12/ 1 Cor. 15:22/ Romans 3:10 All sin comes to all men (including Mary) by Adam’s fall. No one is sinless no not one except Christ (God). There is no exception for Mary since all men are mentioned or all human beings.

8). Job 141:1-4, Job 25:4, Job 15:11-17 Explicit confirmation of original sin (Mary is included since she was born of a sinful woman).

9). Mt. 1:24-25 Virginity of Mary ends after Christ. The word “knew” in the passage is the Greek word “Ginosko” which means to have sexual relations. That verse alone erases any belief or idea that Mary was a virgin all of her life. So in the context, after Christ’s incarnation on planet Earth, it’s very possible for Mary and Joseph to have sexual relations and conceive children. Also, the word “firstborn” in the passage in the Greek is “Prototokos” meaning firstborn before others and head of the family. The word firstborn can mean that Jesus wasn’t the only child, because why wouldn’t there be also an only child of Mary mentioned in the Bible instead of firstborn of Mary if Mary was truly conceived no other children but Christ? The reason is that Jesus Christ has half-brothers (brothers) and half-sisters (sisters) that were younger than Him, for he was the firstborn. There is also no mention of Joseph having children before being married to Mary. This is also against what the Bible says about Jesus. (Since firstborn is mentioned it’s possible children can be conceived by Mary and Joseph.)

10). Psalm 69:6-9 Messianic prophecy showing Christ’s half-brothers and sisters. In that time it literally describes David’s trials, but it does show signs of a prophetic significance because the Psalm mentions “they hate me without a cause” and “stranger among my brethren.” It alludes to Christ in the future because David is the lineage of Christ.

11). Ezekiel 18:4 Mary died since she was sinful. There is no early church historical or biblical evidence for the Assumption of Mary. It wasn’t an official dogma of Catholicism until 1950 and that’s blaspheming Christ’s only ascension to heaven by his own power. Other people in the OT have ascended, but not by there own power. See also Psalm 148:4-13 saying that the Lord has glory and is exalted above heaven and Earth also praised above all. Giving glory to Mary is not necessary. The perpetual virginity and the assumption of Mary existed from apocryphal literature in the early centuries.

12). John 3:6 Mary is born of flesh and blood and is in need to be born again just like everyone else.

13). Romans 5:18 By one man (Adam) judgment came to all men (plus Mary), but by one man (Jesus Christ) human beings can have a chance to receive eternal life.

14). Galatians 1:18-19 The brother of Jesus is mentioned making Mary no an Ever virgin.

15). Hebrews 7:26 Christ only totally is undefiled and holy not Mary.

16). Romans 5:19 Solely one man (Jesus Christ) was sinless to save people. No other human but Christ who is man and God is involved with grace, salvation, mercy, and other spiritual items. Mary wasn’t involved with none of it. 0. Zilch. See also Gen. 3:15-16. That verse says if Mary is the woman of Rev. 12 as Catholics say, it describes her birth pains, which according to the Bible is a judgment on females by the fall making Mary a sinner.

17). Psalm 51:5/ Luke 1:30:46-47 Mary realized she was in need of a savior therefore being sinful and no human is sinless except Christ who is man and God. Only sinners need a savior. Christ is sinless and he Savior of all mankind. If Mary were without sin from birth onward, she wouldn’t need a savior since no sin would influence or stain her. Also see John 2:1-5.

18) 1 John 2:1 The one advocate is Christ not Mary. See also John 2:1 calling Mary only the earthly mother of Jesus not the Mother of God.

19). Eph. 2:3/ Ps. 51:5 Even infants, including Mary inherit original sin, but infants are not accounted for sin though by not knowing right from wrong at birth. See Psalm 58:3 for more on this issue. Infants and young children automatically go to heaven if they die by that one exception.

20). St. John 1:14 Only God is full of grace and truth. Mary isn’t full of grace. Note: Mainly the Douay Rhiems Version (Catholic English Bible) shows full of grace in Luke, but most Bible versions show favored one or thou art highly favored instead. The words of John mentioning full of grace for Christ in Greek is pleerees charitos. So either Mary or Christ possesses that attribute not both. Jesus has it solely by the evidence. It’s very interesting to note that many pagan religions of Ancient America, Babylon, Egypt, China, Rome, Ephesus, etc had concept of the icon of the Mother and child long before Roman Catholicism’s existence. The utilization of her in a Mediatrix of Graces or Ever-Virgin came from many pagan religions. It’s typical to see it found in Roman Catholicism.

21). Luke 1:46-48 Note Mary says his name is Holy and his mercy is on those who fear Him (God). Notice she says God is Holy not herself and mentions mercy. God making Mary far from perfect only gives mercy to sinners (including Mary since Mary is a sinner as well). 2 Peter 2:22-23 says Christ alone has no sin. Giving Mary excelled glory, etc is not required for salvation neither does it effect your salvation, so why is it necessary to call her sinless, etc.

22). Jeremiah 7:18/ Jeremiah 44:17 The Queen of Heaven concept is forbidden which is a nickname utilized about Mary in some Catholic circles.

23). Gen. 6:8/ Acts 6:8/ Eph. 1:6/ Mt. 25:34/ Ex. 33:12/ Ezra 9:8/ Ps. 84:11, 2 Cor. 9:8, Romans 6:15 Other people including Mary are bestowed grace or blessed no just Mary alone. The term chariots means bestowed grace used for Mary and other cases. Blessed in Greek is eulogia meaning “to be well spoken off” Does that denote perpetual virginity or sinlesness? Not likely in that circumstance.

24). Mt. 2:11,13, 14, 20,21 When Jesus and Mary are mentioned together, Jesus always acquires the greatest emphasis. Jesus not Mary should have your focus solely.

25). Ps. 84:11 All believers are given grace not just Mary representing the sinfulness of Mary. That statement proves equality of believers in God and God’s word. See also 2 Cor. 9:8 and Rom. 6:15. Ruth 3:13 say Ruth was given favor like a handmaid similar to Mary in Luke (More confirmation of equality between Ruth, Mary, and all believers in Christ).

26). Judges 5:24 Jael is blessed above women in which is similar to Mary being blessed among women. Mary is chosen in preference to all women not men. Grace shown is from the Greek word kecharitomene referring to God graced or given favor. Being grace is a result of being sinful (if someone is sinless, being given grace would be pointless since that person has no stain to merit grace) making Mary not sinless and validates the equality of all believers in Christ. God’s preference to Mary was not because Mary is sinless, but to fulfill prophecy, etc. Mary was Jewish, a virgin, with the lineage of Levi (Judah-Abraham), and other reasons God choose her. It has nothing to do with superiority over all women. God chooses men and women for specific purposes, but it isn’t implied that they are better or greater than anyone else. Mary is the mother of the earthly Jesus and she’s very important not sinless. See also Acts 1:14 saying It’s the last time Mary is mentioned in scripture while she is in a prayer meeting with 120 disciples. None of them honored her; none of them reverence her, none of them prayed to or through her. God is no respecter of persons.

27). Luke 11:27-28 Blessed are people who follow Christ instead of Mary (Mary even admitted this truth). See also Mt. 12:48-50 where Jesus said whosoever shall do the will of my Father is like my brother, sister, and mother.

28). Mt. 11:11 John the Baptist is given excelled mention, but he isn’t perfect or sinless just like Mary isn’t.

29). Luke 1:34 When the angel Gabriel first appeared to her and announced the savior would be conceived in her womb, she responded, “how can this be since I do not know a man.” Mary asked by the angel what manner of greeting is this? If she was sinless, certainly she would have known and understands why she had been selected for this honor she is sinful as a result of that and tons of other reasons.

Now in church history, the whole early church didn’t all believed in Immaculate Conception or the Assumption of Mary. Origen, Jovinus, Helvidus, Waldensians, Anabaptists, etc denied it. Polycarp, Ignatius, Barbanas, Papais, Polycrates, the apostles, and Jesus Christ never mentioned a word on such a heretical concept. Tertullian in his Treatise on the Soul at Chapter 41 explicitly called God who is Christ as having no sin at all. Mary isn’t produced to be sinless or immaculate in that literature at all. Clement of Alexandria in his “The Instructor” at Book 1, Chapter 2 said that the Word is sinless without making any mention of Mary. Many of the apocryphal works and the Council of Ephesus (431 AD.) were the main factors in causing the exalted, unbiblical titles of Mary (i.e. “Mother of God”) to be utilized. One source from Ephaream from Syria is probably the main early church literature Papists use to “attempt” to promote the lie that Mary is an ever-virgin and sinless. Even Thomas Aquinas didn’t believe in Immaculate Conception (yet today, Catholic apologists are disputing that in theology research). The Franciscan friars in the 1300’s are the main individuals who are responsible for making that lie in Catholic doctrine making it mandatory for Catholics to follow.

Later, Catholicism used it as an article of their faith including the Assumption of Mary by the 1800’s. Gradual development caused the formation of those 2 doctrines. What Catholic apologists don’t tell you is that in 495 AD, Pope Gelasius issued a decree, which rejected the Assumption of Mary as heresy and its proponents as heretics. In the sixth century, Pope Hormisdas also condemned as heretics those authors who taught against the doctrine of the Assumption of Mary. Even the early Catholic Church considered the doctrine of the Assumption of Mary as heresy. Wow. There are 2 so-called “infallible popes” declaring modern Catholic dogma a heresy. Also Pope Leo I, Pope Gelasius, and Pope Innocent III all denied that Mary was sinless only giving Christ the designation of being the immaculate lamb. Wow. How ironic. Now we see new claims of Catholic apologists.

Today, they claim that the Reformers believed Mary was sinless, etc. Now only some of the Reformers (Luther, Calvin, Zwingli, and Billinger mainly) subscribed to that belief and not all. The Protestants Reformers weren’t perfect in every single way as history shows. Tyndale, Rogers, Wycliffe, and other Reformers showed no signs of believing in that at all. No individual or a movement account for Bible believers’ perception of God only God and his word. Catholic apologists today are more desperate than ever to lie about Mary and the true church.

30). Luke 2:47-52 Mary and Joseph didn’t understand Christ’s words. If Mary were sinless, she would easily understand Christ’s sayings since one who is sinless would know God’s ways and won’t need an explanation to concepts. It’s sin that corrupts one’s understanding of spiritual things or ideals.

31). Leviticus 20:27 Praying through or to a being in another dimension is necromancy and forbidden by God in the O.T. and in the N.T. since that’s moral law. When someone passes on after death no one (whether it be saved or unsaved people existing on earth) should communicate with that being. The only communicate with another being in another dimension is God who is infinite and exists in both realms. The only communication with another being in another dimension is God who is infinite and exists in both realms. God can easily forgive prayer and intercede with Mary or the “saints.” The denial of the invocation of the saints, Mary, etc is biblical.

32). Gen. 3:13-15 Now this is one prophecy Catholics use to validate Mary being sinless. Now in that verse, there is no explicit showing of Immaculate Conception let alone the sinlessness of Mary. That verse shows the seed of woman crushing the head of Satan. Mary is important, but not sinless or an ever virgin or sinless. No human is sinless except Christ who is God and man. The head of the serpent is to be bruised by the seed of the woman, who is the Saviour, Jesus Christ and not crushed by the woman (Mary). You will also see that the bruise that the serpent will inflict is to his heel. The seed is of course masculine because of, our Saviour is Jesus Christ not Mary. Enmity is mentioned meaning eybah from Hebrew and it means hostility or hatred. Christ alone accomplished the crushing of Satan without Mary’s assistance at all. There is not one word in that verse or the Bible as a whole showing preservation of any human form sin or preserved to be sinless. (Only Christ as man and God is 100% purely sinless from everlasting to everlasting.)

33). John 2:2-4 Mary said “whatsoever he saith unto you do it.” Here is a verse that Mary commanded believers to follow Christ alone. The exalted titles of Mary or veneration or adoration of her is therefore very unnecessary because Christ is the being alone by all believers to follow and worship.

34). Matthew 1:20/ Luke 1:35 Jesus Christ is the only one who was not conceived by natural means, but by the Holy Spirit. 2 human parents, on the other hand, conceived Mary, and both parents were sinners making Mary a sinner for being a human being. No human other than Jesus Christ (who is human and divine) is sinless and you can find this directly and explicitly throughout the OT and NT.

35). Luke 1:41-45 In those verses, we see that Elisabeth greeting Mary and recognizing that she is blessed for being the mother of the Lord. But Elisabeth didn’t venerate or bowed before Mary neither did she give Mary any recognition of worship towards Mary. She only knew what was occurring. (Mary being involved in the incarnation of Christ was only a sinful vessel, etc. and that it was the Lord who should be worshipped and no other entity.)

By TruthSeeker24 (Timothy)